Wednesday, September 4, 2013

Why did Obama make the absurd declaration in Sweden today that he didn't draw a red line viz Syrian WMD use, that the world did, congress did, but not him? I'm going to assume the man isn't completely delusional and actually believes in the verity and coherence of that statement - I mean, sure, extreme arrogance can often look like delusion so I guess it's conceivable he's gone bye bye, but of course common sense says it's not that and rather that there's some practical motivation behind it. Now, certainly could be simple case that he has to be able to address the 'red line problem' in some way that doesn't make him sound reckless or inept or foolish and the way he just spoke about it in Sweden is the way they've decided to go. But could it be more cynical, self serving political game playing here from Obama? The statement is so ridiculous that you wonder: he wants to lose the vote in congress on use of force and reckons that if he says some stuff that he knows is gonna piss republicans off then that increases the likelihood of a no vote. Sure, I'm reaching with that one - but I've often said and the last four years have demonstrated to a significant degree the truth of it: I don't think there's anything this guy wouldn't say or do if he thought it served his political interests. If he can manufacture some way to blame the whole Syria fiasco on the GOP house, or at the very least make them share substantial blame for it, then that's what he's gonna do. If he compromises American strategic wherewithals and reputation in the process, who cares! As long as he wins. I mean, he doesn't believe in the traditional uses of American power anyways so why would he care if he's compromising it?